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cheapbag214s
Posted: Thu 2:07, 22 Aug 2013
Post subject: Can We Help
Can We Help,
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Wise Words - Episode 28
Which use of the word is correct, 'disorientated' or 'disoriented'? Also just the word 'oriented' or 'orientated'? I see it used both ways and find it annoying. Bev,
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, NSW
Let's start with the verbs 'orient' and 'orientate'. Both mean the same thing; they are about as synonymous as two words could be. Someone who is orienting or orientating themselves could be getting their bearings - finding out where they are. Or it could involve something more abstract - someone could be trying to get their head around the details of a particular situation. So both verbs can have a geographical or a figurative sense. Both verbs too share a common origin. They go back to the French noun Orient,
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, which in the 1300s referred, as it still does,
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, to that part of the earth's surface situated to the east. The verb to orient illustrates a process known as conversation. It's a handy feature of English that we can take a word and convert it into another part of speech,
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, without actually adding anything. Here we take a noun 'orient' and turn it into a verb 'to orient'. Simple! The verb 'orientate' illustrates another process known as affixation - this is the most usual way we have a creating new words. In this case we take the lively '-ate' ending and put it on the noun orient to create a new verb orientate, from which we can then create another noun orientation.
When both verbs first appeared on the scene, the meaning was different. When things were orientated or oriented it meant they were arranged so that they were facing eastwards. Here's a quotation from 1880 for orientate: "'Don't disturb the skeleton!' cried Felix,
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, anxious to make scientific notes whether the grave was 'orientated'" So Felix wanted to know whether the grave was facing eastwards. Both verbs quickly generalised from this very restricted meaning and it wasn't long before orientation using either verb simply involved a position with respect to anything - a location or an idea. This is the way meanings usually go. Typically they become more and more general, more and more abstract - and more and more part of the speaker's world. With time both these words become increasingly oriented, or should that be orientated, towards the speaker.
Now, you'll find that orient is more usual in Britain - about twice as frequent as orientate according to Pam Peters' Guide to English Usage; orient is more usual in Canada and the US (in fact according to Pam, Americans almost exclusively use orient). Here in Australia the preference is also for orient,
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, as you might guess from the constant complaints about orientate. According to Pam, the Australian Corpus of English shows orient outnumbering orientate 18:3. So Australians share with North Americans a clear preference for orient.
It's curious that orientate should smack of innovation. Both verbs have been around since roughly the same time. Most of the citations in the Oxford English Dictionary date from the 1800s,
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, although it's true there are a few from the 1700s for orient. So orient does beat orientate by about a hundred years - orientate is a little newer. But at around 200 years old it hardly rates as a neologism!
Recently I heard on TV and radio "junta" pronounced as "giunta". It should be "hunta" shouldn't it and where does the word originate from? Peter, NSW
The problem with this word junta is that it's a lexical exotic (borrowed from Spanish) and this means it comes with the problem of how to pronounce it. In origins it is historically connected to the words 'join' and 'junction' (etymologically junta is a body of people 'joined' together for a particular purpose,
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, hence a 'governing committee'). Now, basically,
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, the longer a borrowed word has been in the language, the more likely it is to have been made to conform to the pronunciation rules of English. The word join (originally from French) has been in the language since the 13th century,
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, so it has well and truly adapted to English. Junta has been around since the 1600s. So the pronunciation has settled down too,
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, but we still have regional variation. The pronunciation recommended in the Macquarie Dictionary is the more English one. This has it sounding something like jumper. However, some people attempt a more Spanish rendering,
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, with a vowel close to the one in took and a softly gutteral sounding 'ch' at the start. The problem is that English does not have (or no longer has) this consonant; so many people substitute it with the nearest sound and that is [h]. This more Spanish-sounding pronunciation is more likely to be heard in the States.
What is the origin of the phrase "goodie two shoes"? Jan, VIC
The origin of this is quite clear. It was the title of a rather serious but sweet little nursery tale called 'The History of Little Goody Two-Shoes', first published in 1765 by John Newbery. When she was finally given a complete pair by a rich gentleman,
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, she was so chuffed that she showed them to everybody, telling them she has now "Two shoes". This earned here the nickname Goody Two Shoes. The phrase later generalised and became quite negative. These days it is likely to refer to a rather priggishly and smugly virtuous person. To my mind, it has to have been contaminated by the phrase 'goody-goody'. In fact,
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, this word goody in the phrase 'goody two shoes' is the original address term for woman (appearing 1500s). Typically it referred to a married woman, in humble life and it was often prefixed as a title to the surname (so I'd be Goody Burridge). It could also be used more generally as a noun (for instance, so you could talk about a couple of village goodies).
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